And if someone offers you three infinities for the price of two, think again. You might be taken for a ride.

Specific Language Impairment
11 What is this? Does it mean that someone can be impaired in a specific language and not in another? And what kind of impairment would it be?
Nutrax has already provided clarification, but to add: it's specific (language impairment) rather than (specific language) impairment. In other words, 'specific' qualifies 'language impairment' rather than 'language' alone - the impairment is specific.
I speak English.
I speak Mandarin.
I speak Hainanese, Hokkien, Teochew, and Cantonese (4 dialects/languages from south-eastern China.)
I speak Malay, albeit not as fluent as when I took it as a Second Language in my secondary school days, with chunks of vacabulary having been returned to my teacher as the years go by.
I am from Singapore.
And there are many more people like me in Singapore and Malaysia.
Define "many". As a % of the population. I can't wait to hear, according to you, what percentage of the popluation of Malaysia is fluent in 6 languages/dialects and quite proficinet with another.
This should be fun.

VinnyD #29, I will not comment on the correct grammatical usage of countable, but in mathematics, there exist countable and uncountable infinities. The second one is much much larger than the first one. An example: a set of natural numbers or integers versus a set of real numbers: between any two integers, there is an infinite number of real numbers...
But you can probably ask for half a dozen uncountable infinities.

I was assuming that luZbelito was making a little grammatical joke, but you're right he may have been getting all Cantorian on us.

Only 460 people answered the poll, out of what? 100.000 Throntree members?
This would quite accurately reflect my gut feeling that only 0.5 % of the members are regulars who reply to questions (or polls), and who obviously are the most highly skilled individuals around here :-)